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Understanding and Implementing Residents Rights

1. A health care professional is developing an educational lecture focused on residents' rights. Which of the following informational points of interest should be included in the health care professional's lecture?

A. Residents' rights only extend through the first 90 days of residency.

B. Residents' rights only extend through the first 180 days of residency.

C. Residents' rights are important because they help ensure residents follow a health care facility's rules.

D. Residents' rights are important because they help ensure residents of health care facilities receive safe and effective health care, and they help prevent resident abuse.


2. A health care professional has questions regarding resident abuse. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Resident abuse refers to an intentional act or failure to act that causes or creates a risk of harm to a resident of a health care facility.

B. Resident abuse refers to an intentional act or failure to act that causes or creates a risk of harm to a resident of a health care facility.

C. Resident abuse refers to a single act of aggression towards a resident.

D. Resident abuse refers to repeated acts of aggression followed by verbal attacks and public shaming.


3. A 68-year-old male resident of a health care facility reports that he is often yelled at and 'blamed for things' he did not do. Which of the following types of resident abuse best matches the resident's aforementioned reports?

A. Exploitation

B. Verbal/emotional abuse

C. Sexual abuse

D. Neglect


4. A 72-year-old female resident of a health care facility reports that she was forced to look at pornographic materials. Which of the following types of resident abuse best matches the resident's aforementioned reports?

A. Exploitation

B. Verbal/emotional abuse

C. Sexual abuse

D. Neglect


5. Which of the following best represents a sign of psychological abuse?

A. A lack of interest in socializing with others

B. Bite marks on the body

C. Unexplained withdrawals from bank accounts

D. Bruising around the genitals


6. Which of the following best represents a sign of health care financial fraud?

A. Bite marks on the body

B. Untreated conditions, diseases, and/or illnesses

C. Memory gaps

D. Unresponsive behavior


7. Which of the following best represents a sign of neglect?

A. Unexplained bruising on the legs or thighs

B. Unexplained signatures on checks

C. Bruises that appear to be from restraints

D. Poor hygiene


8. A health care professional is developing an educational lecture focused on dementia and resident abuse. Which of the following informational points of interest should be included in the health care professional's lecture?

A. Dementia is a normal part of aging.

B. Dementia is a normal part of aging for male individuals.

C. Residents suffering from dementia may be more susceptible to resident abuse.

D. Residents suffering from dementia are often less susceptible to resident abuse.


9. A victim of resident abuse presents to a health care facility. During the patient exam, a health care professional observes a pressure injury. The health care professional also observes that the patient's pressure injury is characterized by partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis. Based on the previous patient information, which of the following stages best represents the stage of the patient's pressure injury?

A. Stage 1 pressure injury

B. Stage 2 pressure injury

C. Stage 3 pressure injury

D. Stage 4 pressure injury


10. A victim of resident abuse reports the following symptoms: sleep difficulties, fatigue, and a loss of interest in previously enjoyable activities. Based on the previous resident information, which complication of resident abuse is the patient most likely suffering from?

A. Malnutrition

B. A depressive disorder

C. An anxiety disorder

D. PTSD


11. Which of the following best represents a complication typically associated with resident abuse?

A. Enuresis

B. Polyphagia

C. PTSD

D. ADHD


12. Which of the following statements best defines the term 'beneficence?'

A. Beneficence, as it relates to health care, may refer to the obligation of the health care professional to act in the best interest of the patient.

B. Beneficence, as it relates to health care, refers to the obligation of the health care professional to act in a manner that does not cause harm to the individual patient; do no harm.

C. Beneficence, as it relates to health care, refers to the fair and equitable distribution of health care resources to patients.

D. Beneficence, as it relates to health care, refers to the obligation of the health care professional to make decisions for a patient.


13. Which of the following best represents a fall precaution?

A. Keep resident bed brakes unlocked

B. Avoid the use of night lights

C. Keep the resident's personal possessions out of reach

D. Keep resident care areas uncluttered


14. A health care professional uses a Stay Independent 12-question tool to screen a 74-year-old female resident to determine if the resident is at risk for falls. The resident's total Stay Independent score is 5. How can the resident's score be interpreted?

A. The resident may be at risk for falling.

B. The resident is not at risk for falls.

C. The resident should be retested.

D. The resident should be retested in 14 days.


15. A 68-year-old male resident undergoes a 30 Second Chair Stand fall risk assessment. The resident's final score is 12. Which of the following statements regarding the resident's aforementioned score is most accurate?

A. The resident is at risk for falls.

B. The resident is at risk for falls in the home.

C. The resident's score is above average.

D. The resident's score is below average.


16. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The 4-Stage Balance Test assessment takes approximately 60 minutes to complete.

B. The 4-Stage Balance Test assessment tool is for male patients.

C. The 4-Stage Balance Test assessment tool should not be used on individuals over the age of 65.

D. The 4-Stage Balance Test assessment tool assesses an individual's static balance.


17. A 78-year-old resident has questions about personal hygiene. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the resident?

A. Use warm water when engaging in personal hygiene rather than hot water or extremely hot water to reduce the risk of dehydrating the skin.

B. Use hot water or extremely hot water when engaging in personal hygiene to reduce the risk of dehydrating the skin.

C. Emollient-based soap substitutes and bath emollients are not designed to promote skin integrity.

D. Avoid emollient-based soap substitutes at all times.


18. A 92-year-old male resident has questions regarding drying after bathing. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the resident?

A. Gently rub the skin when engaging in drying.

B. Do not dry the skin after bathing.

C. Drying the skin after bathing can promote skin breakdown.

D. Wait 15 minutes after bathing, then dry the skin by rubbing a towel in an up and down manner.


19. How many calories should a 68-year-old, male resident take in per day?

A. Approximately 1,200 to 1,400 calories

B. Approximately 1,400 to 16,000 calories

C. Approximately 1,600 to 2,400 calories per day

D. Approximately 2,000 to 3,000 calories per day


20. A health care professional has questions regarding effective communication with residents. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Health care professionals should avoid resident questions to foster effective communication when engaging with residents.

B. Health care professionals should avoid or limit eye contact to foster effective communication when engaging with residents.

C. Health care professionals should limit interruptions to foster effective communication when engaging with residents.

D. Health care professionals should direct all communication to residents' family members.


21. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The resident has the right to be informed, in advance, of the care to be furnished and the type of care giver or professional that will furnish care.

B. The resident does not have the right to be informed, in advance, of care.

C. Only the resident's representative should be informed of a resident's care.

D. Only the resident's representative should be informed of a resident's care after care is initiated.


22. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to only persons and services inside the facility.

B. The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to only persons and services outside the facility.

C. The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility.

D. The resident does not have a right to communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility.


23. Which of the following best represents a resident's right?

A. The resident has the right to request, refuse, and/or discontinue treatment, to participate in or refuse to participate in experimental research, and to formulate an advance directive.

B. The resident has the right to request or refuse treatment; however, the resident does not have the right to discontinue treatment.

C. The resident has the right to request or refuse treatment, only, if the patient is not being treated for a mental illness.

D. The resident has the right to request or refuse treatment, only, when the resident is being treated for cancer.


24. A health care professional has questions regarding the visitation rights of residents. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Residents do not have visitation rights.

B. Only residents under the age of 85 have visitation rights.

C. A health care facility is not responsible for ensuring residents' visitation rights.

D. The facility must have written policies and procedures regarding the visitation rights of residents, including those setting forth any clinically necessary or reasonable restriction or limitation or safety restriction or limitation.


25. Which of the following best represents a resident's right?

A. The resident has a right to organize and participate in resident groups in the facility.

B. The resident has a right to participate in resident groups in the facility; however, the resident does not have the right to organize resident groups in the facility.

C. The resident has the right to organize resident groups in the facility, only if the resident group consists of less than 10 residents.

D. The resident has the right to organize resident groups in the facility, only if the resident group consists of less than 15 residents.


26. An 85-year-old male resident has questions regarding his financial affairs. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the resident?

A. Residents do not have a right to manage their financial affairs.

B. Residents, over the age of 80, do not have a right to manage their financial affairs.

C. Residents do not have the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.

D. Residents have a right to manage their financial affairs; this includes the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.


27. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. In general the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $25 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account.

B. In general the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account.

C. In general the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $1000 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to a facility account.

D. In general the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $2000 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to a facility account.


28. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The resident does not have the right to have reasonable access to the use of a telephone.

B. The resident has the right to use a cellular phone that is free of charge.

C. The resident has the right to have reasonable access to the use of a telephone, including TTY and TDD services, and a place in the facility where calls can be made without being overheard; this does not include the right to retain and use a cellular phone.

D. The resident has the right to have reasonable access to the use of a telephone, including TTY and TDD services, and a place in the facility where calls can be made without being overheard; this includes the right to retain and use a cellular phone at the resident's own expense.


29. A health care professional has questions regarding resident discharge. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. The facility must refund to the resident or resident representative any and all refunds due to the resident within 10 days from the resident's date of discharge from the facility.

B. The facility must refund to the resident or resident representative any and all refunds due to the resident within 30 days from the resident's date of discharge from the facility.

C. The facility must refund to the resident or resident representative any and all refunds due to the resident within 60 days from the resident's date of discharge from the facility.

D. A facility is not required to refund a resident.


30. A 79-year-old resident has questions regarding personal privacy. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the resident?

A. Personal privacy does not include written and telephone communications.

B. Personal privacy does not include personal care.

C. Personal privacy includes accommodations, medical treatment, written and telephone communications, personal care, visits, and meetings of family and resident groups, but this does not require the facility to provide a private room for each resident.

D. Personal privacy includes accommodations, medical treatment, written and telephone communications, personal care, visits, and meetings of family, resident groups, and a private room for each resident.


31. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. A facility may use involuntary seclusion to discipline a resident.

B. A facility may use involuntary seclusion if a resident refuses to follow the facility's rules.

C. The facility must not use verbal, mental, sexual, physical abuse, or corporal punishment; however, a facility may use involuntary seclusion on a case-by-case basis.

D. The facility must not use verbal, mental, sexual, or physical abuse, corporal punishment, or involuntary seclusion.


32. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than two hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury.

B. In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than four hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury.

C. In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than five hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury.

D. In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than 24 hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury.


33. A health care professional has questions regarding resident assessments. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. A facility must maintain all resident assessments completed within the previous 12 months in the resident's active record and use the results of the assessments to develop, review, and revise the resident's comprehensive plan of care.

B. A facility must maintain all resident assessments completed within the previous 15 months in the resident's active record and use the results of the assessments to develop, review, and revise the resident's comprehensive plan of care.

C. A facility does not have to maintain resident assessments.

D. A facility does not have to maintain resident assessments conducted on residents over the age of 90.


34. Which of the following must be included in a resident's discharge summary?

A. Disciplinary actions taken against the resident.

B. Financial actions taken against the resident.

C. A reconciliation of all pre-discharge medications.

D. An accounting of the resident's sleep habits.


35. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, as long as dialysis is not required every 24 hours.

B. The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, as long as dialysis is not required every 48 hours.

C. The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, as long as dialysis is not required every 72 hours.

D. The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences.


36. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The resident must be seen by a physician at least once every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission, and at least once every 60 days thereafter.

B. The resident must be seen by a physician at least twice every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission, and at least once every 60 days thereafter.

C. The resident must be seen by a physician at least once every 60 days for the first 120 days after admission, and at least once every 90 days thereafter.

D. The resident must be seen by a physician at least twice every 60 days for the first 120 days after admission, and at least once every 90 days thereafter.


37. A resident of a health care facility is ordered a PRN psychotropic drug. Which of the following Title 42 Part 483-related requirements should be applied to the resident's newly ordered PRN psychotropic drug?

A. PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 5 days.

B. PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 10 days.

C. PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days.

D. PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 30 days.


38. A 69-year-old female resident has questions regarding her rights to meals. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the resident?

A. Each resident must receive and the facility must provide at least two meals daily, at regular times comparable to normal mealtimes in the community or in accordance with resident needs, preferences, requests, and plan of care.

B. Each resident must receive and the facility must provide at least three meals daily, at regular times comparable to normal mealtimes in the community or in accordance with resident needs, preferences, requests, and plan of care.

C. Each resident must receive and the facility must provide at least four meals daily, at regular times comparable to normal mealtimes in the community or in accordance with resident needs, preferences, requests, and plan of care.

D. Residents do not have specific rights to meals of any kind.


39. A team of health care professionals is developing COVID-19 policies and procedures. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following components must be included in the COVID-19 policies and procedures?

A. A process to evacuate residents into long-term housing due to COVID-19 transmission.

B. A process to evacuate residents into short-term housing due to COVID-19 transmission.

C. A process for ensuring the implementation of additional precautions, intended to mitigate the transmission and spread of COVID-19, for all staff who are not fully vaccinated for COVID-19.

D. A process to terminate staff who refuse COVID-19 vaccination.


40. According to Title 42 Part 483, which of the following requirements apply to residents' bedrooms?

A. Resident bedrooms must measure at least 40 square feet per resident in multiple resident bedrooms, and at least 80 square feet in single resident rooms.

B. Resident bedrooms must measure at least 80 square feet per resident in multiple resident bedrooms, and at least 100 square feet in single resident rooms.

C. Resident bedrooms must measure at least 100 square feet per resident in multiple resident bedrooms, and at least 200 square feet in single resident rooms.

D. Resident bedrooms must measure at least 150 square feet per resident in multiple resident bedrooms, and at least 200 square feet in single resident rooms.


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