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National Guidelines for Behavioral Health Crisis Care

1. A health care professional has questions regarding crisis services. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Crisis services include dispatching support based on the assessed need of the caller.

B. Crisis services include mobile crisis teams dispatched to hospital emergency departments.

C. Crisis services include crisis receiving and stabilization facilities that specialize in serving individuals under the age of 18 suffering from SUDs.

D. Crisis services include the ability to deny services to individuals over the age of 65.


2. Which of the following best represents a minimum expectation to operate a mobile crisis team service?

A. Restricted services to select locations within the region or particular days/times.

B. A licensed and/or credentialed clinician capable of assessing the needs of individuals within the region of operation.

C. Ability to provide services to individuals under the age of 18 within 72 hours.

D. Ability to provide services to individuals over the age of 65 within 72 hours.


3. According to the course, what is the initial step in providing community-based mobile crisis services?

A. Determine the sex of the individual in crisis.

B. Determine the age, location, and type of insurance of the individual in crisis.

C. Determine if the individual in crisis is on prescribed medications.

D. Determine the level of risk faced by the individual in crisis and assess the most appropriate response to meet the need.


4. According to the course, crisis receiving and stabilization services must do which of the following?

A. Accept all referrals

B. Accept all referrals and require medical clearance

C. Limit the acceptance of referrals

D. Reject all referrals related to individuals over the age of 65


5. According to the course, what is the role of the psychiatrist/psychiatric nurse practitioner during an evaluation?

A. Administer medications to the individual in need

B. Administer medications to the individual in need, while conducting medication reconciliations

C. Evaluate and define a course of care for substance use, mental and physical health needs

D. Evaluate the individual in need, contact the individual's family, and provide health information to the individual's family


6. Which of the following statements best describes a psychiatric or mental health advance directive (PAD)?

A. A PAD is a legal tool that allows a person with mental illness to state his or her preferences for treatment in advance of a crisis.

B. A PAD is a legal tool that does not allow a person with mental illness to state his or her preferences for treatment in advance of a crisis.

C. A PAD is a legal tool that allows a person with mental illness and his or her family to state preferences for treatment during a crisis.

D. A PAD is not a legal tool - however, it allows a person with mental illness and his or her family to state preferences for treatment during a crisis.


7. Which of the following best represents a key element of Zero Suicide/Suicide Safer Care?

A. Keep patients separated at all times.

B. Remove all patient belongings at the time of admission.

C. Provide continuous contact and support; especially after acute care.

D. Provide continuous one-to-one monitoring.


8. According to the course, which of the following best represents the recommended coding option for a crisis line?

A. H0030 - Behavioral Health Hotline Service and contract as a safety net resource to augment funding

B. H2011 - Crisis Intervention Service per 15 minutes

C. S9484 - Crisis Intervention Mental Health Services per Hour

D. S9485 - Crisis Intervention Mental Health Services per Diem


9. A health care professional has questions regarding crisis call centers. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Crisis call centers are typically open and operate Monday - Friday.

B. Crisis call centers operate every moment of every day (24/7/365).

C. Crisis call centers are not typically staffed with clinicians overseeing clinical triage.

E. Crisis call centers should not focus on answering every call.


10. According to the course, performance metrics related to crisis mobile services should include which of the following?

A. Number served per 8-hour shift

B. Number served per week

C. Law enforcement reaction time

D. Law enforcement call rate


11. Which of the following statements best describes a 24-hour Crisis Line?

A. A call line that provides opportunities for talking, receiving support, and referrals.

B. A call line that specializes in referrals.

C. A communication system that provides screening, assessment, preliminary counseling, and resources for referrals for mental health or substance use services and suicide prevention pathways.

D. A communication system that provides opportunities for talking.


12. A 24-year-old male patient has questions regarding transition clinics. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?

A. Transition clinics specialize in female patient treatment.

B. Transition clinics often address medications and brief counseling to support opioid use disorder and other substance use needs.

C. Transition clinics are typically small and can only serve up to 16 patients per week.

D. Transition clinics are typically only appropriate for individuals suffering from extreme behavioral dysregulation challenges.


13. A health care professional has questions regarding crisis stabilization units. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Crisis stabilization units are considered more restrictive and an alternative to traditional inpatient psychiatric hospitalization.

B. Crisis stabilization units can provide prompt assessment, medical monitoring, stabilization, and determination of the next level of care needed.

C. Crisis stabilization units provide psychiatry access for medication prescriptions to avoid gaps in care.

D. Crisis stabilization units are typically large facilities consisting of greater than 250 beds.


14. According to the course, what is, typically, the first step in the "current problematic crisis system?"

A. A call to 911

B. A call to a warm line

C. A call to behavioral health response

D. A call to a primary care physician


15. An individual undergoes a crisis. The individual contacts a behavioral health response service. According to the flow of an Interconnected Model Crisis Continuum, what may be the next step for the individual in crisis. 

A. The individual may be directly sent to the emergency department of a hospital.

B. The individual may be directly sent to a bridge clinic.

C. The individual may be directly sent to a primary care physician for care and medication refills.

D. The individual may be referred to a crisis hub.


16. A health care professional has questions regarding motivational interviewing (MI). Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. MI is a strengths-based, health care professional-centered engagement intervention that enhances motivation to change, resolves ambivalence, and relies on oral medications.

B. MI is a strengths-based, client-centered engagement intervention that enhances motivation to change and resolves ambivalence.

C. MI should not be used on long-term homeless individuals.

D. MI should not be used on homeless individuals taking prescription medications.


17. Which of the following best represents a tenet of MI?

A. Avoid open-ended questions

B. Avoid reflective statements

C. Assume an individual wants to talk

E. Refrain from pushing individuals into services they do not want


18. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Trauma never results in an exacerbation of one’s behavioral health condition.

B. Trauma does not affect an individual's problem-solving capacity.

C. Trauma-informed approaches are particularly crucial with individuals experiencing homelessness due to high trauma rates that may be both a risk factor and a cause of homelessness.

D. Trauma-informed approaches should not be used on individuals experiencing homelessness due to low rates of SUDs.


19. A health care professional has questions regarding the CoC’s CE system and policies. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Access points do not typically service individuals suffering from SUDs.

B. Access points do not typically service individuals suffering from opioid addiction.

C. Access points typically offer problem-solving assistance to rapidly resolve a homeless crisis.

D. Access points typically offer law enforcement assistance to rapidly remove homeless individuals from the street.


20. According to the course, when will 988 go into effect as the new three-digit dialing code to increase the effectiveness of suicide prevention efforts?

A. Spring, 2022

B. Spring, 2023

C. Spring, 2024

D. Spring, 2025


21. A 30-year-old female patient has questions regarding the National Crisis Text Line. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?

A. In the U.S., individuals can text HOME to 741741 during a crisis to receive help from volunteers at the Crisis Text Line in a crisis.

B. In the U.S., individuals can text HOMEHELPHOME to 741742 during a crisis to receive help from volunteers at the Crisis Text Line in a crisis.

C. Individuals that may be suffering from COVID-19 should not text the Crisis Text Line.

D. Individuals, over the age of 18, that may be suffering from COVID-19 should not text the Crisis Text Line.


22. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The Crisis Text Line relies on an algorithm that reviews incoming text messages for flag words to determine how quickly a text should be answered, and the likeliness that the counselor will need to call 911.

B. The Crisis Text Line relies on an algorithm that reviews incoming text messages for flag words to eliminate texts.

C. The Crisis Text Line relies on an algorithm that reviews the location of incoming text messages to determine if they represent a legitimate crisis.

D. The Crisis Text Line relies on an algorithm that reviews the location of incoming text messages to determine the necessary response time.


23. A health care professional has questions regarding mobile crisis response teams. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Mobile crisis response teams consist of first responders who respond to behavioral health crises in the community at the request of mental health professionals.

B. Mobile crisis response teams consist of mental health professionals who respond to behavioral health crises in the community at the request of first responders or crisis call lines.

C. Mobile crisis response teams work to respond to a behavioral health crises within 12 hours of the initial call.

D. Mobile crisis response teams work to respond to a behavioral health crisis within 24 hours of the initial call.


24. Which of the following statements best describes web-based search engines?

A. Web-based search engines allow individuals to visit a website to access information on crisis bed facilities, including their locations, available services, and contact information.

B. Web-based search engines allow individuals to visit a website to access information on individuals admitted into crisis bed facilities.

C. Web-based search engines allow individuals to contact local law enforcement in the case of a behavioral health crisis.

D. Web-based search engines allow individuals to contact first responders in the case of a behavioral health crisis.


25. A health care professional has questions regarding patient privacy. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. The Department of Health and Human Services’ Privacy Rule does not apply to mental health providers.

B. The Department of Health and Human Services’ Privacy Rule does not apply to mental health providers when treating individuals with SUDs.

C. Mental health providers must abide by the Department of Health and Human Services’ Privacy Rule.

D. Mental health providers must abide by the Department of Health and Human Services’ Privacy Rule only when treating individuals under the age of 65.


26. Which of the following statements best describes the Security Rule?

A. The Security Rule sets the standards for securing patient data that is stored or transferred by electronic methods.

B. The Security Rule sets the standards for securing patient data that is stored or transferred by non-electronic methods.

C. The Security Rule does not apply to providers who are delivering services face-to-face.

D. The Security Rule does not apply to providers who are delivering services face-to-face via telehealth services.


27. Which of the following statements best describes Talkspace?

A. Talkspace is a government sponsored app that connects individuals through text and chat with a licensed therapist.

B. Talkspace is a government sponsored app that connects individuals through text and chat with a licensed therapist.

C. Talkspace is an app that connects individuals through text and chat with a licensed therapist, and is part of a private, for-profit company.

D. Talkspace is an app that connects individuals through text and chat with a licensed therapist, and is part of a private, for-profit company that is sponsored by the federal government.


28. A 40-year-old male patient has questions regarding community-based mobile crisis services. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?

A. Community-based mobile crisis services provide face-to-face interventions for individuals in crisis with trained clinical professionals and peers.

B. Community-based mobile crisis services provide face-to-face interventions for individuals in crisis with law enforcement.

C. Community-based mobile crisis services provide face-to-face interventions for individuals in crisis at health care facilities located within 200 miles of the individual.

D. Community-based mobile crisis services do not provide face-to-face interventions.


29. Which of the following statements best describes the co-responder model?

A. An officer and behavioral health specialist stay in contact via text messaging for a period of 24 hours.

B. An officer and behavioral health specialist stay in contact via text messaging for a period of 48 hours.

C. An officer and behavioral health specialist ride in separate vehicles so they may respond to a crisis separately within a time frame of 20 minutes.

D. An officer and behavioral health specialist ride together in the same vehicle for an entire shift.


30. Which of the following best represents a SAMHSA-related core principle?

A. Treat SUDs before mental illness

B. Treat mental illness before SUDs

C. Address recovery needs

D. Address recovery needs before suicidal ideation


31. A health care professional has questions regarding MAT. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Individuals receiving MAT are at decreased risk for morbidity and mortality caused by interruptions in their pharmacotherapy.

B. Individuals receiving MAT are at increased risk for morbidity and mortality caused by interruptions in their pharmacotherapy as discontinuing MAT often leads to relapse and overdose.

C. Interruptions in pharmacotherapy do not typically impact MAT.

D. Interruptions in pharmacotherapy are often part of MAT.


32. According to the course, which of the following  statements best represents the relationship between alcohol and COVID-19? 

A. Excessive alcohol use can decrease an individual's susceptibility to COVID-19.

B. Excessive alcohol use can decrease an individual's need for COVID-19-related treatment.

C. Excessive alcohol use can increase the susceptibility to and severity of COVID-19.

D. Excessive alcohol use can increase the susceptibility to and severity of COVID-19 in individuals under the age of 25 who received a COVID-19 vaccine.


33. Which of the following statements best describes a police hold? 

A. A police hold allows law enforcement officers to hold an individual without cause for a period of 48 hours.

B. Police holds allow law enforcement officers to hold an individual without cause for a period of 72 hours.

C. Police holds allow law enforcement officers to place an individual who appears to be publicly intoxicated into custody for SUD treatment.

D. Police holds allow law enforcement officers to place an individual who appears to be publicly incapacitated into protective custody for the purpose of taking them to an emergency room or appropriate facility.


34. Which of the following statements best describes an inpatient civil commitment?

A. Inpatient civil commitments require individuals' consent.

B. Inpatient civil commitments require an individual's consent to be detained for 48 hours.

C. Inpatient civil commitments may occur when a judge orders voluntary hospitalization for an individual who meets the state’s civil commitment criteria.

D. Inpatient civil commitments may occur when a judge orders involuntary hospitalization for an individual who meets the state’s civil commitment criteria.


35. A health care professional has questions regarding an AOT. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. An AOT may be a method of providing involuntary, court-ordered mental health treatment in the community.

B. An AOT may be a method of providing voluntary, court-ordered mental health treatment in the community.

C. AOTs specifically apply to individuals suffering from opioid use disorder.

D. AOTs specifically apply to individuals, over the age of 21, who may be suffering from an opioid use disorder.


36. Which of the following best represents the American Psychiatric Association’s position statement on AOT? 

A. AOTs are appropriate for all individuals.

B. AOTs are appropriate for all individuals under the age of 65.

C. Not all individuals are appropriate for AOT, but involuntary outpatient treatment programs have demonstrated their effectiveness when systematically implemented, linked to intensive outpatient services, and prescribed or extended periods of time for persons clinically evaluated and identified as appropriate for this type of court-ordered treatment.

D. Not all individuals are appropriate for AOT, but involuntary outpatient treatment programs have demonstrated their effectiveness when systematically implemented and not linked to intensive outpatient services.


37. Which of the following often act as first responders and extensions of the court when the provisions of an AOT order have been violated?

A. Primary care providers

B. Psychiatrists

C. Social workers

D. Law enforcement officers


38. A 32-year-old female patient has questions regarding a designated court-appointed guardian. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?

A. Individuals over the age of 18 cannot have a designated court-appointed guardian.

B. Individuals under the age of 65 cannot have a designated court-appointed guardian.

C. Designated court-appointed guardians are for those individuals who cannot legally make their own treatment decisions.

D. Designated court-appointed guardians are for those individuals, under the age of 65, who cannot make their own treatment and HIPAA-related decisions.


39. A patient in crisis is acting in an imminently dangerous, and agitated manner. According to the course, how should health care professionals initially respond to the patient in crisis?

A. Utilize immediate physical restraint

B. Utilize seclusion

C. Utilize immediate physical restraint followed by seclusion

D. Employ non-coercive de-escalation strategies


40. A 42-year-old male patient acts in a dangerous, and agitated manner towards a health care professional. The patient raises his voice, and invades the health care professional's personal space. Eventually, the patient gains controls and the situation deescalates. However, several other patients are disturbed by the incident. According to the course, which of the following strategies should be used to improve outcomes in managing future aggressive behavior from the patient?

A. Administer benzodiazepines every 4 hours

B. Administer benzodiazepines every 8 hours

C. Engage in patient and staff debriefings

D. Engage local law enforcement


41. Which of the following statements best describes the term “duty to warn?” 

A. A provider may have the duty to break confidentiality and warn a potential third party under certain circumstances, such as when the patient reveals ideas about harming the third party.

B. A provider may have the duty to break confidentiality and warn local law enforcement under certain circumstances, such as when a patient with SUD reveals ideas about harming himself or herself.

C. A provider may have the duty to break confidentiality and warn a patient's family member about a patient's illicit drug use.

D. A provider may have the duty to break confidentiality and warn local law enforcement about a patient's illicit drug use.


42. Which of the following statements best describes “Red flag” laws?

A. “Red flag” laws may allow for the immediate seizure of personal belongings for those individuals suffering from SUD.

B. “Red flag” laws may allow for the immediate seizure of personal belongings for those individuals suffering from mental illness.

C. “Red flag” laws, which only apply to individuals with mental illness, may allow for firearm removal provisions for those individuals who present risk to themselves or other individuals.

D. “Red flag” laws may allow for firearm removal provisions for those individuals who present risk to themselves or other individuals.


43. A health care professional is required to meet with an incarcerated individual during the “reentry” period. When does the “reentry” period typically take place?

A. When an individual is leaving a courtroom after legal proceedings.

B. When an individual is leaving jail or prison.

C. When an individual is leaving a hospital.

D. When an individual is leaving a psychiatric facility.


44. Which of the following statements best describes the term “dumping?”

A. Denial of or limitation in the provision of medical services to a patient for economic reasons and the referral of that patient elsewhere.

B. Denial of or limitation in the provision of medical services to a patient for economic reasons and the immediate discharge of a patient.

C. Denial of or limitation in the provision of medical services to a patient for economic reasons and the discharge of a patient into the care of a family member.

D. Denial of or limitation in the provision of medical services to a patient for economic reasons and the discharge of a patient into the custody of local law enforcement.


45. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The federal government typically pays for the 24/7 infrastructure critical to the functioning of a crisis system.

B. States typically pay for the 24/7 infrastructure critical to the functioning of a crisis system.

C. Private donations typically pay for the 24/7 infrastructure critical to the functioning of a crisis system.

D. For-profit organizations typically pay for the 24/7 infrastructure critical to the functioning of a crisis system.


46. What does a 1915(b) waiver permit?

A. A 1915(b) waiver permits states to limit HIPAA laws.

B. A 1915(b) waiver permits states to limit 42 CFR Part 2 laws.

C. A 1915(b) waiver permits states to remove service delivery models during state emergencies.

D. A 1915(b) waiver permits states to implement service delivery models.


47. What does a 1915(c) waiver permit?

A. A 1915(c) waiver permits states to limit HIPAA laws.

B. A 1915(c) waiver permits states to limit HIPAA laws and 42 CFR Part 2 laws.

C. A 1915(c) waiver permits states to remove HCBS models during state emergencies.

D. A 1915(c) waiver permits states to use HCBS to provide care in a non-institutional setting.


48. What does a 1115 waiver permit?

A. A 1115 waiver permits states to waive some Medicaid statutes related to program design as part of an experimental, pilot or demonstration project.

B. A 1115 waiver permits states to waive all Medicaid statutes.

C. A 1115 waiver permits states to waive some HIPAA statutes related to program design as part of an experimental, pilot or demonstration project.

D. A 1115 waiver permits states to waive all HIPAA statutes.


49. How does §424.101 define medical emergencies for Medicaid? 

A. Inpatient hospital services that are necessary to prevent death or serious impairment of health and, because of the danger to life or health, require use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish those services.

B. Outpatient hospital services that are necessary to prevent death or serious impairment of health and, because of the danger to life or health, require use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish those services.

C. Inpatient or outpatient hospital services that are necessary to prevent death or serious impairment of health and, because of the danger to life or health, require use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish those services.

D. Inpatient or outpatient hospital services, for individuals over the age of 65, that are necessary to prevent death or serious impairment of health and, because of the danger to life or health, require use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish those services.


50. A health care professional has questions regarding Medicaid billing. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. In order to bill Medicaid for crisis services, it is not enough to assign a billing code to services provided.

B. In order to bill Medicaid for crisis services, it is enough to assign a billing code to services provided.

C. Hospitals cannot bill Medicaid for crisis services in any way.

D. Psychiatric facilities cannot bill Medicaid for crisis services in any way.


51. A health care professional has questions regarding crisis intervention teams (CIT). Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. CIT guides the interaction between health care professionals and individuals with SUD.

B. CIT guides the interaction between law enforcement and individuals with mental illness.

C. CIT is funded by for-profit organizations.

D. CIT is funded by the federal government and for-profit organizations.


52. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The federal government governs how private insurance operates within states.

B. Medicaid governs how private insurance operates within states.

C. Medicaid and Medicare governs how private insurance operates within states.

D. States govern how private insurance operates within their state.


53. According to the course, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Community stakeholders providing crisis services must be familiar with available funding mechanisms to access appropriate financial, clinical, and material resources to support profit driven goals.

B. Community stakeholders providing crisis services must be familiar with available funding mechanisms to access appropriate financial, clinical, and material resources to support a diverse mental health workforce and unique patient populations with psychiatric needs.

C. Crisis services should not employ a systems-based approach.

D. Crisis services must employ a systems-based approach to focus on early intervention for individuals aged 65 or older.


54. A health care professional has questions regarding historical trauma. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Clinicians should avoid discussing historical trauma with patients.

B. Clinicians should avoid discussing historical trauma with patients under the age of 18.

C. Clinicians may provide more culturally competent care by demonstrating an awareness of historical trauma in racial, ethnic, and experiential minority populations.

D. Demonstrating an awareness of historical trauma in racial, ethnic, and experiential minority populations is associated with a decrease in patient outcomes.


55. A health care professional has questions regarding mental health stigmas. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. A biopsychosocial approach to assessment and treatment that explores the roles of family, culture, and religious beliefs may be helpful in addressing barriers to mental health service.

B. A biopsychosocial approach to assessment and treatment that explores the roles of family, culture, and religious beliefs is often not helpful in addressing barriers to mental health service.

C. The biopsychosocial approach explores socioeconomic factors that influence the decreasing mental health stigma in patient populations over the age of 18.

D. The biopsychosocial approach explores socioeconomic factors that influence mental health stigmas related to gender and the health status of female patients.


56. A health care professional has questions regarding sexual identity. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Clinicians providing crisis services should not consider sexual identity as part of their biopsychosocial assessment.

B. Clinicians providing crisis services should consider sexual identity as part of their biopsychosocial assessment.

C. Clinicians should avoid discussing sexual identity with patients.

D. Clinicians should avoid discussing sexual identity with male patients.


57. Which of the following statements best describes what should be included in a clinical examination?

A. A clinical examination should include a narrow assessment of individuals' functional strengths to provide individualized person-centered treatment.

B. A clinical examination should include a narrow assessment of individuals' functional limitations to provide individualized person-centered treatment.

C. A clinical examination should include a narrow assessment of individuals' functional strengths and limitations to provide individualized person-centered treatment.

D. A clinical examination should include a broad assessment of individuals' functional strengths and limitations to provide individualized person-centered treatment.


58. According to the course, crisis mental health systems are most adept at delivering services to individuals that fall into which of the following age ranges?

A. 16 - 25

B. 18 - 25

C. 18 - 40

D. 18 - 65


59. The parents of a 12-year-old male patient have questions regarding symptoms of psychological distress. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?

A. Children under 14 do not exhibit symptoms of psychological distress.

B. Children under 16 do not exhibit symptoms of psychological distress.

C. Children may exhibit symptoms of psychological distress, including suicidal ideation, mood disorders, behavioral changes, and the effects of substance use.

D. Children may exhibit symptoms of psychological distress, such as behavioral changes. However, they do not exhibit suicidal ideation.


60. A health care professional has questions regarding older adults and chronic mental illness. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Older adults with chronic mental illness may be less likely to achieve full symptom remission early in treatment.

B. Older adults with chronic mental illness may be more likely to achieve full symptom remission early in treatment.

C. Older adults with chronic mental illness often do not respond to chronic mental illness treatment within the first two years of treatment.

D. Older adults with chronic mental illness often do not respond to chronic mental illness treatment in any way.


61. The son of an older adult patient has questions regarding older adult abuse. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient? 

A. Older adults are not at risk for abuse.

B. Older adults typically do not experience physical abuse.

C. Older adults typically do not experience sexual abuse.

D. Older adults are at increased risk of physical and sexual abuse, neglect, and financial and material exploitation by strangers and individuals in positions of trust.


62. A health care professional has questions regarding undocumented individuals. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Undocumented individuals are not at risk for affective disorders.

B. Undocumented individuals are at decreased risk of affective disorders and are less likely to interface with the health system.

C. Undocumented individuals are at decreased risk of affective disorders and are more likely to interface with the health system.

D. Undocumented individuals are at increased risk of affective disorders and are less likely to interface with the health system if they feel their family's legal status may be criminalized.


63. Which of the following statements best describes the requirements of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 requires federally-funded facilities to exclusively provide in-person linguistic services to its constituents.

B. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 requires federally-funded facilities to exclusively provide remote linguistic services to its constituents.

C. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 requires federally-funded facilities to provide linguistic services, whether in-person or remote aids, to its constituents.

D. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 requires private-funded facilities to provide linguistic services to individuals 18 years of age and older.


64. A health care professional has questions regarding LGBT populations. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. LGBT populations are less likely to suffer from affective, anxiety, and substance use challenges than the heterosexual population.

B. LGBT populations are less likely to suffer from affective, anxiety, and substance use challenges than the heterosexual population, and individuals from LGBT populations are less likely to attempt suicide.

C. LGBT populations are more likely to suffer from affective, anxiety, and substance use challenges than the heterosexual population, and approximately twice as likely to attempt suicide.

D. LGBT populations are more likely to suffer from affective, anxiety, and substance use challenges than the heterosexual population - however, individuals from LGBT populations are less likely to attempt suicide.


65. According to the course, which of the following represents one of the most common neurodevelopmental disorders?

A. Depression

B. Anxiety

C. Schizophrenia

D. Autism spectrum disorder


66. The parents of a 10-year-old male patient suffering from ASD have questions regarding ASD. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient's parents?

A. ASD is not characterized by impairments in social communication.

B. Individuals with ASD typically do not experience abnormal language development.

C. ASD is always accompanied by intellectual developmental disorder.

D. Individuals with ASD may experience and display restricted and repetitive behaviors.


67. According to the course, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Individuals with IDDs are at decreased risk of longer emergency department boarding times.

B. Individuals with IDDs are typically not permitted in hospital emergency departments.

C. Individuals with IDDs often have less varied and complex presentations when compared to the general population.

D. Individuals with IDDs often have more varied and complex presentations when compared to the general population.


68. An individual suffering from IDD begins to self-harm. According to the course, self-injury may be a symptom of which of the following in individuals with IDD?

A. Self-injury may be a symptom of extreme psychotic behavior, which warrants immediate sedation.

B. Self-injury may be a symptom of dangerous and aggressive behavior, which warrants immediate sedation.

C. Self-injury may be a symptom of a psychiatric disorder or functional behavior to communicate pain, discomfort, and unhappiness.

D. Self-injury may be a symptom of a psychiatric disorder or functional behavior to communicate self-pleasure and extreme desires.


69. Which of the following statements best describes the term "escape-avoidance?"

A. Behaviors commonly used in IDD populations to avoid inactivity.

B. Behaviors commonly used in IDD populations to avoid activity.

C. Behaviors commonly used in IDD populations to avoid medications.

D. Behaviors commonly used in IDD populations to avoid health care professionals administering any form of treatment.


70. According to the course, individuals with serious mental illness die how many years earlier than the general population?

A. 1- 2 years earlier than the general population

B. 2 - 4 years earlier than the general population

C. 5 - 10 years earlier than the general population

D. 8 - 25 years earlier than the general population


71. Which of the following statements best describes the sequential intercept model?

A. The sequential intercept model is a framework for understanding person to person transmission of infectious diseases.

B. The sequential intercept model is a framework for understanding the use of PPE to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases.

C. The sequential intercept model is a framework for understanding the criminal justice system as a series of decisions, inputs, and mechanisms along a continuum of penetration into the carceral system.

D. The sequential intercept model is a framework for understanding the methods to change the criminal justice system.


72. Which of the following statements best describes integrated systems of care?

A. Integrated systems of care focus on disparities among male individuals over the age of 18.

B. Integrated systems of care focus on disparities among male individuals over the age of 65.

C. Integrated systems of care recognize disparities among individuals living in long-term care facilities.

D. Integrated systems of care recognize disparities among individuals and create safeguards against perpetuating existing inequalities.


73. A health care professional has questions regarding behavioral health disorders. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?

A. Behavioral health disorders may refer to serious changes in the way older adults behave.

B. Behavioral health disorders may refer to serious changes in the way older adults typically behave, or handle their emotions, which do not typically lead to distress.

C. Behavioral health disorders may refer to serious changes in the way children typically learn, behave, or handle their emotions, which do not typically lead to distress.

D. Behavioral health disorders may refer to serious changes in the way children typically learn, behave, or handle their emotions, leading to distress and problems getting through the day.


74. In children aged 3 - 17, which of the following represents the most commonly diagnosed behavioral health condition?

A. PTSD

B. SUD

C. ADHD

D. Fragile X syndrome


75. Which of the following statements best represents Tier 2 of the Multi-Tiered Systems of Support (MTSS) in Schools?

A. Supports and early intervention for students identified as at-risk for mental health concerns.

B. Promotion of positive social, emotional, and behavioral skills and overall wellness for all students.

C. Targeted interventions for students with serious concerns that impact daily functioning.

D. Administering medications to students in need.


76. Which of the following statements best describes a facilitated referral model?

A. The facilitated referral model allows pediatricians to have rapid access to law enforcement officers located on-site.

B. The facilitated referral model allows pediatricians to have rapid access to law enforcement officers located off-site.

C. The facilitated referral model allows pediatricians to have rapid access to behavioral health providers located off-site, and who consult pediatricians about mental conditions, including crises, and absorb the direct care of these patients.

D. The facilitated referral model allows pediatricians to have rapid access to behavioral health providers located off-site, and who consult to pediatricians about mental conditions, including crises, but do not absorb the direct care of these patients.


77. A parent calls 988 and reports the following, "My child is having horrible meltdowns over nothing every other day." Based on the previous parent report, which of the following is the child most likely suffering from?

A. Communication disorder

B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

C. Somatic disorder

D. Traumatic disorder


78. A parent calls 988 and reports the following, "My child has hoarded all kinds of food in a closet." Based on the previous parent report, which of the following is the child most likely suffering from?

A. ASD

B. ADHD

C. Anxiety

D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder


79. Which of the following best represents an effective de-escalation strategy for children and adolescents?

A. Make demands

B. Try to reason

C. Use the word "no"

D. Silence


80. To meet the needs of children and families in crisis, regional crisis call hub services should consider which of the following?

A. Including the use of texting

B. Do not include the use of texting

C. Avoid the use of telehealth

D. Use telehealth for children, but not for adolescents


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