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Quantum Units Education

HIV AIDS Health Care Maintenance and Disease Prevention

Occupational Postexposure Prophylaxis

1. Pregnancy is a contraindication to postexposure prophylaxis.

A. True

B. False

2. The efficacy of PEP is related to:

A. The specific PEP regimen.

B. The timing of PEP.

C. The exposed worker’s level of adherence to the PEP regimen.

D. All of the above.

3. It may be reasonable to offer PEP up to _____ after exposure.

A. 24 hours

B. 72 hours

C. 7 days

D. 14 days

4. Without PEP, HIV transmission occurs about once in _____ instances of needlesticks from a known HIV-infected source patient.

A. 20

B. 180

C. 300

D. 800

5. All of the following exposure and source patient factors are associated with an increased risk of HIV transmission, except for:

A. Smaller gauge hollow-bore needle

B. Visible blood on the device

C. Terminal AIDS in the source patient

D. High HIV viral load of the source patient

6. Compared with percutaneous injury, exposure of infectious body fluids to mucous membranes or to skin with an obvious impairment of integrity, typically involves a lower risk of HIV transmission.

A. True

B. False

7. PEP should be offered even in the case of an exposure to a source patient with an undetectable HIV viral load.

A. True

B. False

8. Consideration in choosing the medications for a PEP regimen include:

A. Possible ARV adverse effects

B. Dosing schedule

C. Drug-drug interactions with other medications the HCP may be taking

D. All of the above

9. Follow-up HIV antibody testing should be done at which of the following times?

A. 6 weeks after the exposure

B. 3 months after the exposure

C. 6 months after the exposure

D. All of the above

Nonoccupational Postexposure Prophylaxis

10. Nonoccupational postexposure prophylaxis is not appropriate for any of the following, except:

A. When the exposure is a single episode and nPEP is initiated in a timely manner.

B. Cases of multiple sexual exposures.

C. Injection drug use exposures over time.

D. Exposures that occurred more than 72 hours before starting nPEP treatment.

11. One significant difference between the protocols of PEP and nPEP is that nPEP protocols should include interventions to reduce the risk of future HIV acquisition.

A. True

B. False

12. All of the following laboratory tests should be performed at baseline before treatment with ARV medication, except for:





13. In which of the following circumstances would more than 3 ARVs be appropriate?

A. If the source virus is resistant to ARVs.

B. If the HIV status of the source person is unknown.

C. The exposure is thought to be of relatively low risk.

D. There is a need to minimize possible toxicity.

14. Nonoccupational PEP programs should focus efforts on risk-reduction counseling rather than the continued use of medicines for prevention.

A. True

B. False

Preventing HIV Transmission / Prevention with Positives

15. Helping HIV-infected persons reduce their risks of transmitting HIV to others is an important aspect of medical care for HIV-infected patients.

A. True

B. False

16. If the patient can read well, printed material can be given to reinforce education in key areas and can replace a direct conversation with the health care professional.

A. True

B. False

17. The CDC’s prevention approach, High-Impact Prevention, uses proven, scalable, and cost-effective interventions, including:


B. Access to condoms and sterile syringes

C. Prevention programs for people living with HIV and their partners

D. All of the above

18. Which of the following is not one of the components of a quick, detailed behavioral risk assessment?

A. Assess where the patient’s risk behavior lies along the risk continuum.

B. Correct misinformation and answer questions.

C. Customize messages, as each individual patient’s needs are variable.

D. Supply medications, condoms, and lubricant as needed.

19. ART has been shown to reduce the rate of HIV transmission in serodiscordant heterosexual couples by _____.

A. 100%

B. 96%

C. 80%

D. 55%

20. Health care professionals should be watchful for attitude shifts away from safer sexual and needle-sharing behaviors among patients who believe that ART protects them from transmitting HIV.

A. True

B. False

21. Depending on risk, it is recommended to screen for all of the following STDs, except for:

A. Syphilis

B. Trichomonas

C. Tuberculosis

D. Herpes simplex virus

22. Which of the following is a method for reducing transmission risk?

A. Maintaining maximal suppression of HIV through ART.

B. Using condoms, particularly for anal or vaginal intercourse (insertive or receptive).

C. Using adequate lubrication to avoid trauma to genital or rectal mucosa.

D. All of the above.

23. ART eliminates HIV transmission risk.

A. True

B. False

24. Which of the following is not recommended for HIV prevention?

A. Latex condoms

B. Polyurethane condoms

C. Natural skin condoms

D. All of the above are recommended for HIV prevention

25. Data suggest that nonoxynol-9 (N-9) spermicides may decrease risk of HIV transmission during vaginal intercourse.

A. True

B. False

26. For increased protection from HIV transmission, a female condom can be used at the same time as a male condom.

A. True

B. False

27. Which of the following practices can help prevent HIV transmission via oral sex?

A. Patients and their partners should avoid oral-genital contact if they have sores or lesions in or around the mouth or on the genitals.

B. Patients and their partners should not brush or floss their teeth before oral sex.

C. Condoms, dental dams, and flexible plastic nonporous kitchen wrap can be used during oral sex.

D. All of the above.

28. Exposure to HIV through contaminated blood may occur with the use of non-injection drugs.

A. True

B. False

Immunizations for HIV-Infected Adults and Adolescents

29. Vaccines have better efficacy in HIV-infected patients when the CD4 count is:

A. Greater than 200 cells/uL

B. Greater than 250 cells/uL

C. Greater than 350 cells/uL

D. Greater than 500 cells/uL

30. Administration of vaccines can be associated with a transient rise in plasma HIV RNA.

A. True

B. False

31. HIV-infected patients should not be given live intranasal influenza vaccines.

A. True

B. False

Preventing Exposure to Opportunistic and Other Infections

32. All of the following pathogens can be transmitted through eating or handling contaminated food, except for:

A. Toxoplasma

B. Brucella

C. Shigella

D. Listeria

Opportunistic Infection Prophylaxis

33. Prophylaxis is recommended to prevent which important opportunistic infection?

A. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

B. Mycobacterium avium complex

C. Toxoplasmosis

D. All of the above

34. Which of the following is the most common life-threatening infection among U.S. residents with advanced HIV disease?

A. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

B. Mycobacterium avium complex

C. Tuberculosis

D. Toxoplasmosis

35. Primary prophylaxis is beneficial and is recommended for coccidiomycosis.

A. True

B. False

Latent Tuberculosis Infection

36. Which of the following is an issue of concern regarding treatment of LTBI among HIV-infected persons?

A. Excluding active pulmonary or extrapulmonary TB disease before treatment with INH alone.

B. Assessing the risk of latent infection with drug-resistant TB.

C. Avoiding or managing drug interactions if rifamycin-containing regimens are used.

D. All of the above.

37. Which of the following can distinguish between LTBI and active TB infection?



C. Both TST and IGRA

D. None of the above

38. When is an IGRA preferred over TST?

A. For persons with previous BCG exposure.

B. For patient groups at risk of not returning for TST readings.

C. Both (A) and (B).

D. None of the above.

39. ART is indicated for all persons with LTBI.

A. True

B. False

Smoking Cessation

40. HIV-infected smokers have been shown to have a decreased immunologic and virologic  response to antiretroviral therapy.

A. True

B. False

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