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1. A health care professional has questions regarding stimulants. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. On a short-term basis, stimulants exert their effects by disrupting or modifying the normal communication that occurs among brain neurons and brain circuits.
B. The use of stimulants decreases the amount of available dopamine in the brain.
C. Stimulants do not affect dopamine when they are taken for extended periods of time.
D. Stimulants do not affect dopamine in any way.
2. What is the half-life of cocaine?
A. Approximately 60 minutes
B. Approximately twohours
C. Approximately fourhours
D. Approximately sixhours
3. Which of the following best represents an acute effect of cocaine?
A. Decreased pulse
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Increase in pupil constriction
D. Increase in body temperature
4. A 24-year-old patient has questions regarding MA. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. Long-term use of MA may increase dopamine levels.
B. Prolonged or heavy use of MA increases the brain’s ability to manufacture dopamine.
C. One of the potential negative effects of chronic MA use is psychosis.
D. Individuals under the age of 30 do not typically experience MA withdrawal.
5. Which of the following best represents a sign of MA use?
A. Decreased fatigue
B. Increased appetite
C. Polydipsia
D. Glossitis
6. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Before a differential diagnosis of a coexisting mental disorder can be made, the patient must be abstinent for at least one week following cessation of withdrawal or severe intoxication.
B. Before a differential diagnosis of a coexisting mental disorder can be made, the patient must be abstinent for at least two weeks following cessation of withdrawal or severe intoxication.
C. Before a differential diagnosis of a coexisting mental disorder can be made, the patient must be abstinent for at least four weeks following cessation of withdrawal or severe intoxication.
D. Before a differential diagnosis of a coexisting mental disorder can be made, the patient must be abstinent for at least eight weeks following cessation of withdrawal or severe intoxication.
7. Which of the following statements best defines the term "depersonalization?"
A. Depersonalization may refer to a sense of experiencing another person's thoughts.
B. Depersonalization may refer to a sense of experiencing one’s own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors from a distance, as if observing or dreaming.
C. Depersonalization may refer to a feeling of detachment from one’s surroundings.
D. Depersonalization may refer to a feeling that the environment appears distorted and not real.
8. What is the onset of action for MA when taken orally?
A. 15 to 20 minutes
B. 60minutes
C. 90minutes
D. 120minutes
9. What is the duration of cocaine's effects when taken intranasally?
A. 5 to 10 minutes
B. 15 to 30 minutes
C. 60 to 90 minutes
D. 90 to 120 minutes
10. A health care professional has questions regarding cocaine. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. 50 percent is eliminated from the body in one hour.
B. Approximately 50 percent is excreted in the urine within 12 hours.
C. Cocaine is synthetic.
D. Smoking produces a high that lasts up to 120 minutes.
11. Which of the following best represents a lethal dose of cocaine?
A. 1.5 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 50mg
12. Which of the following best represents a common sign/symptom of acute stimulant intoxication?
A. Increased sexual libido
B. Decreased self-esteem
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Lymphadenitis
13. Which of the following best represents a common sign/symptom of stimulant withdrawal/abstinence syndrome?
A. Extreme weight loss
B. Dulled sensorium
C. Elevated mood
D. Grandiosity
14. Which of the following best represents a distinctive indicator of chronic misuse of prescription stimulants?
A. Stale urine smell
B. Dental problems, including missing teeth
C. Excoriated skin lesions
D. Increased risk of transient ischemic attack
15. A health care professional is developing an educational lecture focused on naloxone. Which of the following informational points of interest should be included in the health care professional's lecture?
A. Naloxone may be used for stimulant overdose.
B. People who use both stimulants and opioids should not use naloxone.
C. Naloxone can be addictive.
D. Naloxone is not addictive and can be taken by injection or nasal spray.
16. A 32-year-old patient has questions regarding fentanyl test strips. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. Fentanyl test strips allow individuals to determine, before using drugs, whether the drugs were mixed or cut with fentanyl.
B. Fentanyl test strips can be used to determine if an individual ingested fentanyl.
C. Fentanyl test strips can be used to determine the best time to take prescription fentanyl.
D. Avoid the use of fentanyl test strips.
17. A health care professional has questions regarding CM. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. CM uses stimulus control plus negative incentives to achieve behavior change.
B. CM uses stimulus control plus positive incentives to achieve behavior change.
C. When utilizing CM, incentives should only be used for patients over the age of 18.
D. When utilizing CM, incentives should only be used for patients under the age of 18.
18. Which of the following best represents a stimulant diversion prevention technique?
A. Prescribing short-acting formulations rather than long-acting formulations.
B. Prescribing a large number of pills.
C. Developing medication contracts that include the risks and benefits of the stimulant medication.
D. Avoid diagnosing patients with ADHD.
19. Which of the following best represents a management strategy for secondary substance use?
A. Assess individuals using alcohol for AUD and treatment with AUD medications, including naltrexone.
B. Do not use naltrexone to treat AUD.
C. Avoid MI.
D. Assess individuals using opioids for OUD, but do not treat with medications for OUD.
20. How long does cocaine intoxication typically last?
A. Cocaine intoxication typically lasts for 30 minutes.
B. Cocaine intoxication typically lasts for two to four hours.
C. Cocaine intoxication typically lasts for 12 hours.
D. Cocaine intoxication typically lasts for 24 hours.
21. Which of the following best represents a management strategy for psychosis associated with stimulant use?
A. Consider an antipsychotic medication to address acute symptoms.
B. Avoid the use of antipsychotic medications for acute symptoms.
C. Discontinue all antipsychotic medications.
D. Discontinue all antipsychotic medications for patients over the age of 18.
22. Which of the following best represents a management strategy for cognitive deficits associated with stimulant use?
A. Do not inform patients about cognitive deficits.
B. Inform patients about cognitive deficits and use strategies that provide repetition of information and do not depend on optimal memory.
C. Use treatments that require more complex cognitive functioning.
D. Avoid patients with cognitive deficits.
23. Which of the following best represents a clinical consideration for stimulant withdrawal?
A. Stimulant withdrawal symptoms include increased energy.
B. Stimulant withdrawal symptoms do not include paranoia.
C. Most patients experiencing acute withdrawal/early-phase abstinence will have most of their symptoms resolve in 2 - 10 days.
D. Most patients experiencing acute withdrawal/early-phase abstinence will have most of their symptoms resolved in 25 days.
24. A health care professional has questions regarding patients who fail to show up for scheduled visits. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. Health care professionals should not contact patients who fail to show up for scheduled visits.
B. Health care professionals should only contact older adult patients who fail to show up for scheduled visits.
C. Health care professionals should only contact patients with a history of trauma who fail to show up for scheduled visits.
D. Health care professionals should contact patients who fail to show up for scheduled visits to encourage their participation and inquire about possible crises that prevent them from fully engaging.
25. A health care professional has questions regarding regular urine drug screening. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. Avoid regular urine drug screening.
B. Avoid regular urine drug screening for individuals over the age of 21.
C. Establishing a regular urine drug screening protocol with patients at the onset of treatment helps alleviate fears about surveillance.
D. Establishing a regular urine drug screening protocol with patients at the onset of treatment does not help alleviate fears about surveillance.
26. How often should toxicology testing occur?
A. Every day
B. Every two days
C. No more frequently than every three days
D. No more frequently than every 10 days
27. Which of the following statements best defines the term "serodiscordant?"
A. Serodiscordant may refer to having the same HIV infection status of one’s partner.
B. Serodiscordant may refer to having a different HIV infection status from that of one’s partner.
C. Serodiscordant may refer to the act of choosing partners with the same HIV status.
D. Serodiscordant may refer to the act of choosing partners with a different HIV status.
28. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Chemsex is a sexual encounter that is coupled with the use of mind-altering substances during intercourse.
B. Chemsex is a sexual encounter that occurs after the use of perception medications.
C. Chemsex may refer to a sexual encounter involving more than two individuals who are using MA.
D. Chemsex may refer to a sexual encounter involving more than four individuals who are using MA.
29. A 29-year-old patient has questions regarding MA craving. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. Craving typically lasts for 24 hours.
B. Craving typically lasts for 48 hours.
C. Among patients who use MA, craving is often present for a maximum of 10 days.
D. Among patients who use MA, craving can be present for many weeks or months after achieving abstinence.
30. Which of the following best represents a step health care professionals can take to help patients overcome difficulties with withdrawal?
A. Treating co-occurring medical and mental health issues as well as polysubstance use.
B. Avoid treating polysubstance use.
C. Do not alert patients of the kind of withdrawal symptoms they can expect.
D. One-to-one observation for a period of no less than 72 hours.
31. Which of the following best represents a method to help patients address compulsive sexual behavior?
A. Do not discuss sexual fantasies.
B. Address fears, such as sex without drugs will be boring or impossible.
C. Prescribe lorazepam 0.5 mg QID.
D. Prescribe lorazepam 1 mg QID.
32. Which of the following best represents a strategy for mitigating stimulant cravings that lead to drug use?
A. Leaving situations or events that are reminders of stimulant use.
B. Engage in situations or events that are reminders of stimulant use.
C. Engage with friends or family that currently use drugs in order to test cravings.
D. Avoid calling a sponsor.
33. A health care professional has questions regarding substance use during stabilization. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. During stabilization, substance use is a sign of poor motivation.
B. During stabilization, substance use is not a sign of poor motivation but instead reflects multiple factors, including cues and triggers and neurochemical imbalance.
C. During stabilization, patients should be allowed to engage in substance use for a period of 48 hours.
D. During stabilization, patients should be allowed to engage in substance use for a period of 72 hours.
34. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Functional analysis teaches patients how to understand their stimulant use so they may engage in social alcohol consumption.
B. Functional analysis teaches patients how to understand their stimulant use so they may engage in recreational marijuana use.
C. Functional analysis teaches patients how to understand their stimulant use so they may engage in drug free sexual intercourse with multiple partners.
D. Functional analysis teaches patients how to understand their stimulant use so that they can engage in solving problems in a way that reduces the probability of future stimulant use.
35. Which of the following best represents an FDA-approved medication for patients with co-occurring alcohol use disorders?
A. Acamprosate
B. Suboxone
C. Buprenorphine
D. Naloxone
36. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Treatment maintenance ends only when patients achieve the treatment goals documented in their treatment plans and agree with their clinicians to continue ongoing treatment with lorazepam.
B. Treatment maintenance ends only when patients achieve the treatment goals documented in their treatment plans and agree with their clinicians to continue ongoing treatment with clonazepam.
C. Treatment maintenance ends only when patients achieve the treatment goals documented in their treatment plans and agree with their clinicians to continue ongoing treatment with disulfiram.
D. Treatment maintenance ends only when patients achieve the treatment goals documented in their treatment plans and agree with their clinicians to stop ongoing treatment.
37. Which of the following strategies may further help Asian and NHOPI patients with stimulant use disorders initiate, participate in, and complete treatment?
A. Avoid the use of benzodiazepines.
B. Only use benzodiazepines to treat Asians under the age of 65.
C. Do not acknowledge shame as a treatment barrier.
D. Shame can be a treatment barrier for Asian and NHOPI populations, so establishing warm and supportive clinician–patient relationships can help reduce feelings of embarrassment and encourage acceptance of treatment.
38. Which of the following best represents a consideration that can assist health care professionals in providing culturally responsive care for AI/ANs with stimulant use disorders?
A. Most AI/ANs believe that historical trauma does not lie at the heart of SUDs within their communities.
B. Most AI/ANs believe that historical trauma, including the loss of culture, lies at the heart of SUDs within their communities.
C. Physical distance service providers are not a barrier to accessing SUD care.
D. Evidence-based practices are more accepted than practice-based approaches.
39. Which of the following best represents a core component of gender-responsive care?
A. Reserving naloxone for women under the age of 18.
B. Limiting benzodiazepine treatment to women over the age of 40.
C. Using a trauma-informed approach.
D. Using Suboxone as an initial treatment option.
40. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Cocaine can cross the blood–brain barrier and the placenta.
B. Cocaine cannot cross the blood–brain barrier and the placenta.
C. Prenatal cocaine use decreases the risk for low birth weight.
D. Prenatal cocaine use decreases the risk for fetal growth restriction.
41. A parent of a 16-year-old patient with a history of stimulant use has questions regarding substance use. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the parent?
A. Substance use during adolescence does not affect male individuals.
B. Substance use during adolescence does not affect female individuals.
C. Substance use during adolescence is not associated with poor cognitive performance.
D. Cocaine and MA use and amphetamine misuse during adolescence have been shown to rewire still-developing parts of the brain and alter the functioning of more mature parts.
42. Which of the following best represents a NIDA principle of adolescent SUD treatment?
A. Routine annual medical visits are not an opportunity to ask adolescents about drug use.
B. Treatment should just focus on the patient's drug use.
C. Behavioral therapies are not effective in addressing adolescent drug use.
D. It is important to monitor drug use during treatment.
43. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Screening people with stimulant use disorders for HIV should not be part of the standard of care provided by SUD treatment programs.
B. Screening people with stimulant use disorders for HIV should be part of the standard of care provided by SUD treatment programs.
C. Only older adults with stimulant use disorders should be screened for HIV.
D. Only male patients with stimulant use disorders should be screened for HIV.
44. Which of the following resources supports and conducts studies to evaluate the safety and efficacy of pharmacotherapies, behavioral therapies, and devices to treat SUDs?
A. NIDA, Division of Therapeutics and Medical Consequences
B. NIDA, Motivational Incentives Package
C. Self-Management Resource Center
D. Matrix Intensive Outpatient Treatment for People With Stimulant Use Disorders: Client’s Handbook
45. Which of the following resources offers a range of small-group, self-management programs for chronic illness?
A. NIDA/SAMHSA, Motivational Incentives Suite
B. Self-Management Resource Center
C. NIDAMED, Clinical Resources
D. ROSC Resource Guide
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