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1. The “Five P’s” approach to obtaining a sexual history includes each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Partners
B. Prevention of pregnancy
C. Pre-exposure behavior
D. Past history of STDs
2. For persons who are being treated for an STD (or whose partners are undergoing treatment), counseling that encourages abstinence from sexual intercourse until completion of the entire course of medication is crucial.
A. True
B. False
3. Condoms lubricated with spermicides are significantly more effective than other lubricated condoms in protecting against the transmission of HIV and other STDs.
A. True
B. False
4. Syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, HIV infection, AIDS, and ___________ are reportable diseases in every state.
A. Chancroid
B. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Infection
C. Genital warts
D. Epididymitis
5. Unless they have been previously vaccinated or tested, pregnant women should be tested for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) during early prenatal visits .
A. True
B. False
6. Which of the following is an accurate statement about adolescents and STDs?
A. The reported rates of chlamydia and gonorrhea are highest among males aged 15–19 years
B. 48 out of 50 U.S. states explicitly allow minors to consent for their own health services for STDs
C. Routine screening for C. trachomatis is recommended annually for all sexually active females and males aged ≤25 years
D. The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old females, and the Gardasil HPV vaccine can be used in males and females aged 9–26 years to prevent genital warts
7. In untreated patients, the time between HIV infection and the development of AIDS varies, ranging from a few months to many years with an estimated median time of approximately:
A. 13 years
B. 11 years
C. 9 years
D. 7 years
8. Before leaving the testing site, those persons who test positive for HIV should receive prevention counseling which includes behavioral, psychosocial, and medical implications of HIV infection.
A. True
B. False
9. Genital herpes is a chronic, life-long viral infection, and there are approximately 30 million persons in the United States infected with genital herpes caused by HSV-2.
A. True
B. False
10. Systemic antiviral drugs can partially control the signs and symptoms of herpes episodes when used to treat first clinical and recurrent episodes, or when used as daily suppressive therapy.
A. True
B. False
11. Lesions caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) are common among HIV-infected patients and might be severe, painful, and:
A. Atypical
B. Chronic
C. Varying
D. Extreme
12. The risk for transmission to the neonate from an infected mother is high (50%–70%) among women who acquire genital herpes near the time of delivery.
A. True
B. False
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the signs or symptoms of secondary syphilis infection?
A. Skin rash
B. Mucocutaneous lesions
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Ulcer or chancre
14. Laboratory testing is helpful in supporting the diagnosis of neurosyphilis, although no single test can be used to diagnose neurosyphilis in all instances.
A. True
B. False
15. Long-term sex partners of patients who have latent syphilis should be evaluated clinically and serologically for syphilis and treated on the basis of the evaluation findings.
A. True
B. False
16. Latent syphilis is not transmitted sexually, so the objective of treating patients with this stage of disease is to:
A. Control symptoms
B. Manage medications
C. Prevent complications
D. None of the above
17. If penicillin cannot be used, the only acceptable alternatives for the treatment of late latent syphilis or latent syphilis of unknown duration are ciprofloxacin or tinidazole.
A. True
B. False
18. When syphilis is diagnosed during the second half of pregnancy, medication therapy should be delayed until a sonographic fetal evaluation for congenital syphilis can be administered.
A. True
B. False
19. Treatment decisions for Congenital Syphilis must be made on the basis of each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Identification of syphilis in the mother and adequacy of maternal treatment
B. Presence of clinical, laboratory, or radiographic evidence of syphilis in the infant
C. Comparison of maternal (at delivery) and infant nontreponemal serologic titers
D. Detection of syphilis in screening of newborn umbilical cord blood
20. All seroreactive infants should receive careful follow-up examinations and serologic testing every 2–3 months until the test becomes nonreactive or the titer has decreased fourfold.
A. True
B. False
21. Urethritis, as characterized by urethral inflammation, can result from infectious and noninfectious conditions and may or may not have symptoms.
A. True
B. False
22. Clinicians should attempt to obtain objective evidence of urethral inflammation, but if clinic-based diagnostic tools are not available, patients should be treated with drug regimens effective against both __________ and chlamydia.
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
D. Genital Herpes
23. Treatment should be initiated as soon as possible after diagnosis, with flucloxacillin being recommended for chlamydial urethritis and doxycycline for infections with M. genitalium.
A. True
B. False
24. Although cervicitis is frequently asymptomatic, some women complain of an abnormal vaginal discharge and intermenstrual vaginal bleeding.
A. True
B. False
25. Which of the following accurately describes the etiology of cervicitis?
A. When an etiologic organism is isolated in the presence of cervicitis, it is typically T. vaginalis or M. genitalium
B. In most cases of cervicitis, particularly in women over the age of 30, only one organism is isolated
C. For reasons that are unclear, cervicitis can persist despite repeated courses of antimicrobial therapy
D. All of the above
26. Because cervicitis might be a sign of upper-genital–tract infection, women who seek medical treatment for a new episode of cervicitis should be assessed for signs of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
A. True
B. False
27. Treatment of cervicitis in HIV-infected women is vital because cervicitis increases cervical HIV shedding, and proper treatment may reduce HIV transmission to susceptible sex partners.
A. True
B. False
28. Chlamydial genital infection is the most frequently reported infectious disease in the United States, and chlamydial infections in women can lead to PID, ectopic pregnancy, and:
A. Endometriosis
B. Uterine leiomyomas
C. Vaginismus
D. Infertility
29. A meta-analysis of 12 randomized clinical trials of azithromycin versus doxycycline for the treatment of genital chlamydial infection demonstrated that the treatments were equally efficacious.
A. True
B. False
30. Patients should be instructed to refer their sex partners for evaluation, testing, and treatment if they had sexual contact with the patient during the ____ days preceding onset of the patient’s symptoms or chlamydia diagnosis.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
31. Although doxycycline, azithromycin, and levofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnant women. clinical experience and published studies suggest that ofloxacin is safe and effective for treating chlamydia.
A. True
B. False
32. Gonorrhea is the second most commonly reported bacterial STDs in the United States, and an estimated __________ new N. gonorrhoeae infections occur each year.
A. 500,000
B. 600,000
C. 700,000
D. 800,000
33. Since 2007, cephalosporins have no longer been recommended for the treatment of gonorrhea and associated conditions, so only one class of antimicrobials, the quinolones, is recommended and available for the treatment of gonorrhea in the United States.
A. True
B. False
34. N. gonorrhoeae infection is prevalent among patients who have been diagnosed with and treated for gonorrhea in the preceding several months, although most infections result from reinfection rather than treatment failure.
A. True
B. False
35. Gonococcal infection among infants usually is caused by exposure to infected cervical exudate, and it usually manifests 6-9 days after birth.
A. True
B. False
36. Sexual abuse is the most frequent cause of gonococcal infection in preadolescent children, and for preadolescent girls, _________ is the most common manifestation of this infection.
A. Vaginitis
B. Genital rash
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Candidiasis
37. Among women presenting for care of vaginal infection, BV is the most prevalent cause of vaginal discharge or malodor.
A. True
B. False
38. Providers should consider patient preference, _______________, drug interactions, and other co-infections when selecting a treatment regimen for BV.
A. Previous treatment experiences
B. Possible side-effects
C. Cost-effectiveness
D. None of the above
39. Diagnosis of vaginal trichomoniasis is usually performed by microscopy of vaginal secretions, but this method has a sensitivity of only approximately 60%–70% and requires immediate evaluation of the preparation slide for optimal results.
A. True
B. False
40. Metronidazole and tinidazole have been cleared by the FDA for the treatment of trichomoniasis, and recommended metronidazole regimens have resulted in cure rates of approximately ______, while the recommended tinidazole regimen has resulted in cure rates of approximately ______.
A. 75-80%; 80-94%
B. 80-85%; 82-96%
C. 85-90%; 84-98%
D. 90-95%; 86-100%
41. Vaginal trichomoniasis has been associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes, particularly premature rupture of membranes, preterm delivery, and low birth weight.
A. True
B. False
42. An estimated 65% of women will have at least one episode of VVC I in their lifetime, and symptoms include vaginal soreness, dyspareunia, external dysuria, and abnormal vaginal discharge.
A. True
B. False
43. Treatment of VVC with topically applied azole drugs results in relief of symptoms and negative cultures in 80%–90% of patients who complete therapy.
A. True
B. False
44. PID comprises a spectrum of inflammatory disorders of the upper female genital tract, including any combination of endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, and pelvic peritonitis.
A. True
B. False
45. Which of the following is NOT one of the minimum criteria that must be present on pelvic examination in order to diagnose PID?
A. Cervical motion tenderness
B. Uterine tenderness
C. Lower back tenderness
D. Adnexal tenderness
46. Evidence suggests that adolescents benefit from hospitalization for treatment of PID, as younger women with mild-to-moderate acute PID have better outcomes with inpatient therapy.
A. True
B. False
47. Acute epididymitis is a clinical syndrome consisting of pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis that lasts less than ________, while chronic epididymitis is characterized by a longer history of symptoms of discomfort and/or pain in the scrotum, testicle, or epididymis.
A. 8 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 2 weeks
48. There are more than 40 types of HPV which can infect the genital area, and oncogenic or high-risk HPV types are the cause of cervical cancers.
A. True
B. False
49. Which of the following is NOT one of the key counseling messages that should be conveyed to all patients diagnosed with HPV infection?
A. Genital HPV infection is very common, and most sexually active adults will get HPV at some point in their lives, though most will never know it because HPV infection usually has no signs or symptoms
B. While some infections do progress to genital warts, precancers, and cancers, in most cases, HPV infection clears spontaneously, without causing any health problems
C. The types of HPV that cause genital warts are different from the types that can cause anogenital cancers
D. Untreated HPV often affects a woman’s fertility or ability to carry a pregnancy to term
50. Women attending STD clinics for the treatment of genital infection with high-risk types of Human Papillomavirus (HR-HPV) might be at increased risk for cervical cancer, as demonstrated by one study indicting an HR-HPV prevalence of 27% among women receiving treatment in an STD clinic setting.
A. True
B. False
51. HAV infection is primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route, and in the United States, almost half of all persons with hepatitis A report having no risk factor for the disease.
A. True
B. False
52. The incubation period for Hepatitis B from the time of exposure to onset of symptoms is:
A. 5 weeks to 7 months
B. 6 weeks to 6 months
C. 7 weeks to 5 months
D. 8 weeks to 4 months
53. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)’s national strategy to eliminate transmission of HBV infection includes:
A. Prevention of perinatal infection through routine screening of all pregnant women
B. Routine vaccination of infants and previously unvaccinated children and adolescents through age 18 years
C. Vaccination of previously unvaccinated adults at increased risk for infection
D. All of the above
54. HIV infection can impair the response to hepatitis B vaccination, so modified dosing regimens, including a doubling of the standard antigen dose and administration of additional doses might increase the response rate.
A. True
B. False
55. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States, and data indicates that:
A. An estimated 2.6 million persons are chronically infected with HCV
B. Chronic HCV infection develops in 60%–75% of HCV-infected persons
C. CDC surveillance data demonstrate that 10% of persons with acute HCV infection report contact with a known HCV-infected sex partner as their only risk for infection
D. 50%–60% of chronically infected HCV persons develop evidence of active liver disease
56. Because of the high prevalence of HIV/HCV coinfection and because of critical clinical management issues for coinfected persons, all persons with HIV infection should undergo serologic testing for HCV.
A. True
B. False
57. Pediculosis pubis (pubic lice) is usually transmitted by sexual contact, and partners that have had sexual contact with the patient within the previous month should be treated.
A. True
B. False
58. Human Papillomavirus, Hepatitis B, PID, and chlamydial infection are the most frequently diagnosed infections among women who have been sexually assaulted.
A. True
B. False
59. Examinations of children for sexual assault or abuse should be conducted in a manner designed to minimize pain and trauma to the child, and the decision to obtain genital or other specimens in order to conduct an STD evaluation must be made on an individual basis.
A. True
B. False
60. In circumstances in which transmission of syphilis, HIV, or hepatitis B is a concern but baseline tests are negative, examinations at 3 weeks, 2 months, and 4 months after the last suspected sexual exposure are recommended to allow time for antibodies to infectious agents to develop.
A. True
B. False
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