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1. Scientific analysis of both treatment and deterrence-orientation programs has shown that many programs that emphasized motivation and behavior change over punishment have been successful in reducing crime rates among offenders.
A. True
B. False
2. Motivational Interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based practice used to communicate with offenders about ____________ and behavior change.
A. Positive interactions
B. Cognitions
C. Compliance
D. Punishment
3. Deterrence strategies use negative consequences to reduce undesirable behaviors while constructional strategies emphasize reducing undesirable behavior through teaching new skills and providing opportunities to use the new skills.
A. True
B. False
4. Research points to three main principles of effective interventions, which include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Directing programs toward higher risk offenders
B. Targeting behaviors that reduce crime
C. Being responsive to offender style
D. Focusing on commonsense strategies to reduce recidivism
5. Self-control is considered a “static” predictor of crime, while reconnection to primary/healthy relationships is “dynamic”.
A. True
B. False
6. Interactions and interventions should be tailored to offender characteristics such as motivation, learning style and :
A. Intelligence
B. Values
C. Personality
D. Life Skills
7. Although compliance is one maker of success, compliance does not automatically equal change.
A. True
B. False
8. Which of the following accurately describes issues and strategies in the stages of change:
A. During the preparation stage of change the person thinks there may be a change, but has not yet determined what to do about it
B. Confidence building and presenting information, options and advice about change occurs in the action phase
C. Talking about possible trouble spots and developing plans to manage relapse triggers most commonly occurs in the maintenance stage
D. None of the above
9. Change tends to be a process, and relapse maybe a part of the cycle for many people.
A. True
B. False
10. An individual’s perception of himself or herself as the determining agent of an action is known as interpersonal competence.
A. True
B. False
11. The four basic strategies of motivational interviewing (MI) are expressing empathy, rolling with resistance, developing discrepancy, and:
A. Understanding the other’s perspective
B. Guiding feelings of hesitancy
C. Encouraging growth
D. Supporting self-efficacy
12. The five categories of motivational speech are desire, ability, reasons, need, and commitment.
A. True
B. False
13. Research suggests that MI is generally not appropriate for schizophrenic or antisocial clients.
A. True
B. False
14. Although open-ended questions are effective in eliciting information, the use of close-ended questions is recommended during the assessment portion of an interview.
A. True
B. False
15. Some psychologists have suggested that the optimal ration for positive behavior change is about __________ affirmations for every critical comment.
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Three
16. The best reflections do not parrot back what the offender has said, but rather paraphrase what has been said or guess what would come next.
A. True
B. False
17. Instead of confronting resistance with offenders, a more effective response is usually to reflect what the offender is saying and redirect the conversation with an open-ended question or a statement emphasizing:
A. Personal responsibility
B. Open mindedness
C. Positive outcomes
D. Strength and empowerment
18. Although there is no hard and fast rule on what to reflect during MI, the general rule is to emphasize change talk in early interactions but not to reflect ambivalence until much later.
A. True
B. False
19. When using a summary as part of refection, basic elements include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. The benefits and drawbacks of intrinsic motivation
B. The specific problems or behaviors that were discussed
C. The offender’s most important reasons for wanting to take action
D. What the plan of action will look like including incentives and sanctions
20. Offenders may remain stuck in destructive behavior patterns simply because they have never taken the time to weigh the pros and cons of their behavior and the benefits of change.
A. True
B. False
21. Focusing questions on future behavior sidesteps the issues of ___________________, which can be particularly useful when an offender denies the offending behavior.
A. Blame and shame
B. Innocence or guilt
C. Prior actions
D. Resistance and anger
22. An MI-inclined professional understands that problem behaviors have numerous negative consequences, and that the interview should focus on those harmful behaviors in order to assist the offender in making change.
A. True
B. False
23. Conversations about change are most effective when they address one or two areas at a time, so it is important to decide which behaviors deserve immediate consideration and which can be left for later.
A. True
B. False
24. One way to keep a conversation with an offender focused on change is to emphasize _____________.
A. Producitive Statements
B. Hypothetical Situations
C. Positive Influences
D. Coping Mechanisms
25. Asking an offender why he/she didn’t, can’t or won’t do something is known as a reverse-priority question.
A. True
B. False
26. Scaled questions ask offenders to rate from 1 to 10 their desire, readiness and ___________ to change.
A. Commitment
B. Need
C. Necessity
D. Ability
27. When using scaled importance and confidence questions, techniques to encourage elaborations from the offender include asking “why is that?” or “what else?”.
A. True
B. False
28. Strengthening commitment to change occurs during Phase I of the motivation balance scale.
A. True
B. False
29. If providing advice is part of the motivation process, it is important to:
A. Ask for permission before providing advice and preface with permission to disagree
B. Give more than one option
C. Emphasize personal responsibility
D. All of the above
30. “The next time you get angry, make sure you count to 10 before acting," is an example of a facilitating solution.
A. True
B. False
31. When moving from motivation to commitment it is important that individuals stay in the current phase rather than moving back and forth between the two.
A. True
B. False
32. The more specifically an offender talks about the plan of action for change, the more likely he or she is to follow through with it.
A. True
B. False
33. Since a person is more likely to act on a solution he feels he came up with, it is important to involve the offender in planning, use a menu of options, and to:
A. Follow the person’s verbal clues
B. Encourage open communication
C. Give advice without bullying
D. None of the above
34. "Not-so good” questions may be seen as accusations that increase resistance and decrease the likelihood that the offender will talk about changes in his behavior.
A. True
B. False
35. Probaton and parole officers often must play conflicting roles of representing the justice system while also being ______________ and mentor.
A. An advisor
B. A guide
C. An advocate
D. A counselor
36. One deceptive tendency of an offender is to reinterpret information so that it fits with his basic assumptions about his own survival and worth.
A. True
B. False
37. Research suggests that the use of a harsh coercive style can prompt an offender to lie to save face and allows the offender to justify his lies to himself.
A. True
B. False
38. Professionals should make sure offenders are aware of what sanctions are likely to occur as a result of a violation, even though it won’t necessarily make compliance more likely.
A. True
B. False
39. The actions or behavior of an offender should be addressed with an “even keel” attitude or a __________ stance.
A. Positive
B. Assertive
C. Firm
D. Neutral
40. Although it is best that the offender takes responsibility for his past actions, admission of guilt need not always be a prerequisite of a change-focused conversation.
A. True
B. False
41. The three motivational targets of MI include importance, commitment, and:
A. Confidence
B. Preparation
C. Aspiration
D. Hope
42. When using motivational interviewing it is recommended that the professional wait to address how the offender feels about being on supervision until after a few meetings, as this may increase anxiety.
A. True
B. False
43. Initial conversations may address the interests or significant relationships as a way to gather information and set the tone for subsequent meetings.
A. True
B. False
44. The four basic steps to case planning include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Consulting the assessment results form information on risk, needs, and responsivity
B. Asking the offender what problems he thinks are most closely related to his crime
C. Working with offenders to coordinate their conditions of supervision
D. Using information and MI strategies to help solve ambivalence and motivate positive behavior
45. Some of the major tasks for meetings during the middle of the supervision process include encouraging and reinforcing progress, solving problems, and preventing relapses.
A. True
B. False
46. The two documents that guide the interview process are the treatment plan and the behavioral contract.
A. True
B. False
47. Based on its track record, MI can be expected to reduce violations and increase the probability of change.
A. True
B. False
48. When using motivational interviewing to address post violations it is critical to:
A. Provide relevant information
B. Focus on values
C. Determine guilt or innocence
D. All of the above
49. Although MI requires performing new tasks and increasing responsibilities, it will likely promote efficiency and competence.
A. True
B. False
50. Offenders who are well prepared for change require less supervision time, use fewer scarce resources, and are likely to see improvements in their lives, the lives of their families, and lives of their communities.
A. True
B. False
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