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1. Uniform Crime Reports count which of the following?
A. Sexual assault
B. Forcible rape
C. Statutory rape without force
D. All of the above
2. Offenders arrested for rape in 2009 were predominantly young, African-American, and overwhelmingly male.
A. True
B. False
3. NCVS gathers data on the nature and circumstances of the crime, such as:
A. Where it occurred.
B. When it occurred.
C. Whether the victim knew the perpetrator.
D. All of the above.
4. NCVS data indicate that most rape / sexual assault victims are female, white, and under age 30.
A. True
B. False
5. More than 1 in 4 male rape victims experienced their first rape victimization when they were age:
A. 10 or younger
B. 12 or younger
C. 18 or younger
D. 30 or younger
6. Lesbians and gay men were found to have sexual violence victimization rates equal to or lower than those reported by heterosexuals.
A. True
B. False
7. Which of the following is a reason that women may not characterize their sexual victimization as a crime?
A. Embarrassment.
B. Not wanting to define someone they know who victimized them as a rapist.
C. They blamed themselves for their sexual assault.
D. All of the above.
8. Children living in households with lower incomes have higher rates of exposure to sexual and physical assault than those living in households with middle and high incomes.
A. True
B. False
9. The Drug-facilitated, Incapacitated, and Forcible Rape study found that victims of drug-facilitated or incapacitated rape were more likely to report the crime to the police than victims of forcible rape.
A. True
B. False
10. Several studies of victims have shown that the likelihood that a sexual assault will be reported to law enforcement decreases with the victim’s age.
A. True
B. False
11. The rates of all of the following were lower on college campuses, except for:
A. Robbery
B. Rape
C. Aggravated assault
D. Simple assault
12. Within measured categories of disability, individuals with which of the following had the highest risk of victimization?
A. Independent living disabilities
B. Ambulatory disabilities
C. Cognitive disabilities
D. Self-care disabilities
13. All of the following are part of the stigma associated with help-seeking for military sexual trauma, except for:
A. Shame.
B. A desire to maintain unit cohesion.
C. Fear of demotion of rank for reporting.
D. Fear related to reporting a fellow service member with whom the victim may continue to work.
14. One-fifth of victims of MST do not report their attack because they believe that rape is to be expected in the military.
A. True
B. False
15. Which of the following is the reason behind the importance of being concerned with the etiology of sexual offending?
A. The development of effective prevention strategies is contingent on having credible knowledge about the underlying causes of sexual offending and victimization.
B. Knowledge about causes can help sex offender management professionals manage and mitigate risk more effectively.
C. Knowledge about causes can help sex offender management professionals develop more effective treatment interventions.
D. All of the above.
16. A number of studies have found that abnormalities in the brains exist in the majority of sexual offenders.
A. True
B. False
17. Personality theories are successful in demonstrating all of the following, except for:
A. Why disturbances exist within the personalities of sex offenders.
B. That sex offenders have poor social skills.
C. That sex offenders have problems with intimacy.
D. A connection between poor relationships with others and sexual offending behavior.
18. All of the following thinking errors on the part of sex offenders have been identified and supported frequently in research, except for:
A. Minimization of harm done.
B. Claiming the right or entitlement to the behavior.
C. Not thinking of future consequences.
D. Blaming the victim.
19. Sex offenders have higher rates of sexual abuse in their histories than would be expected in the general population, and the majority of perpetrators were abused as children.
A. True
B. False
20. Certain types of offenders, such as those who sexually offend against young boys, have higher rates of child sexual abuse in their histories.
A. True
B. False
21. A child who internalizes which of the following thought processes in reaction to his or her own abuse is more likely to grow into an adult who views sexually abusive acts as less harmful and more pleasurable to the victim?
A. This must be normal.
B. It isn’t a bad thing because someone who loves me is doing it to me.
C. This feels good and I like it.
D. All of the above.
22. There is sound empirical evidence that sexual offending is a learned behavior.
A. True
B. False
23. Which of the following is the primary cause of abusive sexual behavior with children?
A. The antisocial cognitive pathway.
B. The emotional deregulation pathway.
C. The deviant sexual scripts pathway.
D. The intimacy deficit pathway.
24. A defining feature of child sexual abuse is the offender’s perception that the sexual relationship is mutual and acceptable.
A. True
B. False
25. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, a diagnosis of pedophilia requires all of the following of an individual, except for:
A. To have recurrent, intense, and sexually arousing fantasies, urges, or behaviors directed toward a prepubescent child over a period of at least 6 months.
B. To have acted on their urges or to be distressed by them.
C. To be at least 18 years old.
D. To be at least 5 years older than the child victim.
26. All of the following pertain to intrafamilial child sexual abusers, except for:
A. They are less likely to report female victims.
B. They cause less injury.
C. They are less likely to exhibit pedophilia.
D. They have lower sexual and violent recidivism rates.
27. Female offenders who accompany a male co-offender and take an active role in the abuse have been shown to be motivated by:
A. Jealousy and anger
B. Their own childhood sexual and physical abuse
C. Dependence upon the co-offender
D. Attachment deficits
28. Very few sexual offenders commit only one type of offense.
A. True
B. False
29. Developmental factors have been shown to be predictive of all of the following, except for:
A. High-risk sexual behaviors
B. Treatment failure
C. Static risk for re-offense
D. Dynamic risk for re-offense
30. Within the adult sex offender population, child sexual abusers, as compared to rapists, reported:
A. Early exposure to pornography.
B. Sexual activities with animals.
C. An earlier onset of masturbation.
D. All of the above.
31. Child sexual abusers display which type of attachment?
A. Secure attachments
B. Insecure-ambivalent / anxious attachments
C. Insecure-avoidant attachments
D. Insecure-disorganized attachments
32. The United States prohibits which of the following with relation to child pornography?
A. Visual depictions of real children
B. Depictions of fictional children
C. Nonvisual depictions
D. All of the above
33. A sexual interest in young to mid-teen adolescents is all of the following, except for:
A. Illegal.
B. A contravention of social norms about sexual behavior.
C. Indicative of pedophilia.
D. A sexual interest in young to mid-teen adolescents is all of the above.
34. Recent studies have shown that well-established nonsexual criminological factors, such as which of the following, can predict sexual recidivism among child pornography offenders?
A. Offender age at time of first arrest.
B. Prior criminal history.
C. Failure on prior conditional release.
D. All of the above.
35. Contact sex offenders who target girls are more likely to be pedophiles and more likely to sexually reoffend than those who target boys.
A. True
B. False
36. All of the following are significant predictors of sexual rearrest among child pornography offenders, except for:
A. Lower education level
B. Possessing depictions of adolescent minors
C. Possessing non-internet child pornography
D. Being single
37. Given than many individuals who are engaging in problematic online behaviors are undetected by authorities, any comprehensive response to Internet offending will need to include a self-help component.
A. True
B. False
38. Undetected offenders are likely to be inhibited by mandatory reporting requirements, as they cannot talk honestly about illegal acts they have committed.
A. True
B. False
39. Research findings on the extent of sex offender recidivism can help policymakers and practitioners in which way?
A. They can provide an empirical basis for better understanding the differential public safety risks posed by different types of convicted sex offenders.
B. They can help identify the risk factors that are related to recidivism.
C. They can help policymakers and practitioners design and deliver more tailored and effective recidivism reduction strategies.
D. All of the above.
40. While the vast majority of known sex offenders are male, estimates suggest that females commit between _____ of all sexual offenses.
A. 1 - 2%
B. 4 - 5%
C. 8 - 12%
D. 15 - 20%
41. Research indicates that female sex offenders reoffend at significantly lower rates than male sex offenders.
A. True
B. False
42. Sex offenders, regardless of type, have higher rates of sexual recidivism than general recidivism.
A. True
B. False
43. Which of the following methods of assessing sex offender risk does the evaluator begin with a finite list of factors thought to be related to risk, drawn from personal experience and/or theory rather than from relevant empirical evidence?
A. Unguided / unstructured clinical judgment
B. Guided / structured clinical judgment
C. Research-guided clinical judgment
D. Adjusted actuarial approach
44. Recent research suggests that research-guided clinical assessments should be favored over other approaches.
A. True
B. False
45. For assessing the likelihood of sexual recidivism, the best-supported instruments are all of the following, except for the:
A. Risk Matrix-2000 Combined
B. Static-99
C. MnSOST-R
D. SVR-20
46. For a risk factor to be considered psychologically meaningful, there must be:
A. A plausible rationale that the factor is a cause of sexual offending.
B. Strong empirical evidence that the factor predicts sexual recidivism.
C. Both (A) and (B).
D. None of the above.
47. Which of the following pathways is typical of the generally law-abiding pedophile?
A. High sexual criminality / high general criminality
B. High sexual criminality / low general criminality
C. Low sexual criminality / high general criminality
D. Low sexual criminality / low general criminality
48. Frequently, decision-makers want the risk assessment process to provide them with information on:
A. The likelihood of recidivism.
B. The potential consequences associated with recidivism.
C. What might be done to mitigate the assessed risk.
D. All of the above.
49. All of the following are true with regard to meta-analysis, except for:
A. Meta-analysis focuses on the statistical significance found across studies.
B. Meta-analysis enhances the quantitative nature of the review.
C. Meta-analysis helps to reduce bias and the potential for erroneous conclusions.
D. Meta-analysis combines the results of many evaluations into one large study with many subjects.
50. Treatment should not be expected to have the same effect on all sexual offenders, as success can depend on various factors, including all of the following, except:
A. The treatment climate
B. Program delivery
C. The type of offense committed
D. How the participant responds to treatment
51. Findings from single studies of sex offender treatment conducted within the past 10 years remain somewhat inconsistent, but the weight of the evidence from more rigorous studies suggest that treatment - particularly cognitive behavioral approaches - can have a positive effect.
A. True
B. False
52. Treatment effects were found to be greater for sex offenders who completed treatment, as dropping out of treatment tripled the odds of recidivating.
A. True
B. False
53. All of the following are common characteristics of the “principle of effective intervention,” except for:
A. Recidivism principle
B. Risk principle
C. Need principle
D. Responsivity principle
54. Study results show that intensive treatment is effective in reducing recidivism for all risk categories of offenders, except high-risk offenders.
A. True
B. False
55. All of the following are fundamental principles of the Comprehensive Approach to Sex Offender Management, except for:
A. Victim-centered approach
B. Public education
C. Reentry
D. Multidisciplinary collaboration
56. The Washington State Institute for Public Policy concludes that which of the following leads to a reduction in criminal recidivism?
A. Rehabilitation via treatment
B. Intensive supervision
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
57. Research limitations include which of the following?
A. Short followup periods
B. Small sample sizes
C. Different recidivism measures
D. All of the above
58. Research suggests that polygraph testing increases offender disclosure across multiple offending or behavior categories, including historical and current offending and high-risk behavior.
A. True
B. False
59. The goal of Sex Offender Registration and Notification programs is:
A. Deterring offenders from reoffending
B. Giving law enforcement an investigative tool
C. Increasing public protection
D. All of the above
60. Sex offender residence restrictions typically prevent sex offenders from living within 1,000 to 2,500 feet of:
A. Schools
B. Daycare centers
C. Places where children congregate
D. All of the above
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